Here's the NRSV translation of Isaiah 7:14:
And here's Matthew 1:22-23, discussing the virgin birth of Jesus:
So, "young woman" becomes "virgin". Is this a misquotation? Well, not exactly. Matthew, who spoke Greek, is apparently quoting not from the original Hebrew text, but from the Greek translation available to him, known as the Septuagint. And the Septuagint does say "virgin".
Furthermore, it's not entirely certain that the NRSV's translation of Isaiah 7:14 is correct. The ESV, for instance, has this:
I suspect the NRSV is correct, but most evangelicals insist that Isaiah 7:14 can be translated with the word "virgin". For example, the ESV Study Bible says:
Meanwhile, the Oxford Bible Commentary says:
A live issue, then.
Isaiah 7 doesn't seem to be about Jesus at all; rather, the actual prophecy is that a child will be born (this is around the year 730 BC), and before this child is old enough to know right from wrong, the enemies of Judah will have been defeated. This is Isaiah 7:14-16:
It seems like a stretch to see this as being about Jesus, when the actual meaning is so clear. It's also troubling that the child in the prophecy is called "Immanuel". Jesus is never called that in the New Testament (unless you count Matthew's quotation of Isaiah itself).
Still, perhaps none of this is fatal: New Testament writers often seem to find hidden meanings in the earlier texts.
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