Matthew differs from Mark in a small detail regarding a drink that was offered to Jesus. Here is Matthew 27:32-35:
And Mark 15:21-24:
The context of the two verses is identical, so we can pretty much dismiss the idea that these are descriptions of different events. So, was the wine mixed with gall or myrrh? Of course it's possible that it was mixed with both, but it's odd that Matthew should mention one and Mark should mention the other, with neither mentioning both...
However, I'm informed by the author of Errancy.com that the Greek word Matthew uses can simply mean "a substance with an unpleasant taste", in which case there's no problem at all.
Now a different issue: you may encounter the claim that Matthew states that the drink was vinegar. (He doesn't in the ESV translation.) According to the Christian Apologetics and Research Ministry, the original Greek word in Matthew is ozos, which can apparently mean vinegar or sour wine. So this doesn't seem like a major problem either.
Back to errancy.org main index