It's often the case that, when one gospel gives a saying or quotation from Jesus, another gospel presents it slightly differently. Just as an example, here are Matthew 16:13, Mark 8:27 and Luke 9:18, respectively:
It's natural to ask, which of these did Jesus actually say? Well, the answer is, none of them. The gospel writers were writing in Greek, whereas Jesus almost certainly spoke Aramaic. So quotations of Jesus in the gospel are almost certainly translations from Aramaic into Greek.
It's natural that different writers would translate in different ways. None seem to have been too concerned with Jesus' exact wording, but rather intended to give the gist of what Jesus said, and felt free to give it in different ways.
Matters are further complicated by the fact that we are reading English translations of the Greek.
In any case, none of this seems to worry inerrantists, nor should it. There would only be a contradiction if two gospels recorded Jesus saying something drastically different, or gave his original words in his actual language.
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